Preparing for the AWS Certified Solutions Architect Associate Exam (SAA-C02) released in March 2020? Here we’ve brought FREE AWS Solutions Architect Associate Exam Questions for you so that you can prepare well for the AWS Solution Architect Associate exam.
If you’ve already passed the AWS CSAA exam and now preparing for the AWS Certified Solutions Architect Professional Exam, check out Free AWS CSAP Exam Questions. Or if you are preparing for the AWS Developer Associate exam, check out Free AWS Developer Associate Exam Questions.
AWS Certified Solutions Architect Associate Exam (SAA-C02)
AWS Solutions Architect Associate exam is for those who are performing the role of AWS Solutions Architect with at least one year of experience in designing scalable, available, robust, and cost-effective distributed applications and systems on the AWS platform.
The current AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate exam (SAA-C01) exam will expire on March 22, 2020, and the new version of the AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate exam (SAA-C02) will be available from March 23, 2020.
Before that, you can take the new AWS Certified Solutions Architect Associate beta exam. Let’s go through the below set of questions that will prepare you to prepare for the new AWS Certified Solutions Architect Associate Exam (Released March 2020).
AWS Solutions Architect Associate (SAA-C02) exam validates your knowledge and skills for
- Architecting and deploying robust and secure applications on the AWS platform using AWS technologies
- Defining a solution with the use of architectural design principles based on customer requirements.
- Providing guidance for the implementation on the basis of best practices to the organization over the project lifecycle.
Try Free AWS Solutions Architect Associate Exam Questions
While preparing for any of the AWS certifications, you may find a number of resources for the preparation such as AWS documentation, AWS whitepapers, AWS books, AWS Videos, and AWS FAQs. But the practice matters a lot if you are determined to pass the exam in the first attempt.
So, our expert team created a number of AWS Solutions Architect Associate exam questions that we are presenting in this blog not only with the correct answers but also with the detailed explanation. The same pattern we follow in our AWS Certified Solutions Architect Associate practice exam (AWS CSAA practice exam) so that you could understand well which option is correct and why.
Try these AWS Solutions Architect Associate exam questions now and check your preparation level. Let’s see how many of these AWS Solutions Architect questions you can solve at Associate-level!
It is required to follow a right preparation path to pass the AWS Solutions Architect Associate exam. So, check out our previous blog on AWS Certified Solutions Architect Associate Exam Preparation
1. You are an AWS Solutions Architect. Your company has a successful web application deployed in an AWS Auto Scaling group. The application attracts more and more global customers. However, the application’s performance is impacted. Your manager asks you how to improve the performance and availability of the application. Which of the following AWS services would you recommend?
A. AWS DataSync
B. Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator
C. AWS Lake Formation
D. AWS Global Accelerator
AWS Global accelerator provides static IP addresses that are anycast in the AWS edge network. Incoming traffic is distributed across endpoints in AWS regions. The performance and availability of the application are improved.
Option A is incorrect: Because DataSync is a tool to automate the data transfer and does not help to improve the performance.
Option B is incorrect: DynamoDB is not mentioned in this question.
Option C is incorrect: Because AWS Lake Formation is used to manage a large amount of data in AWS which would not help in this situation.
Option D is CORRECT: Check the AWS Global Accelerator use cases in https://docs.aws.amazon.com/global-accelerator/latest/dg/introduction-benefits-of-migrating.html. The Global Accelerator service can improve both application performance and availability.
2. Your team is developing a high-performance computing (HPC) application. The application resolves complex, compute-intensive problems and needs a high-performance and low-latency Lustre file system. You need to configure this file system in AWS at a low cost. Which method is the most suitable?
A. Create a Lustre file system through Amazon FSx.
B. Launch a high-performance Lustre file system in Amazon EBS.
C. Create a high-speed volume cluster in an EC2 placement group.
D. Launch the Lustre file system from AWS Marketplace.
The Lustre file system is an open-source, parallel file system that can be used for HPC applications. Refer to http://lustre.org/ for its introduction. In Amazon FSx, users can quickly launch a Lustre file system at a low cost.
Option A is CORRECT: Amazon FSx supports Lustre file systems and users pay for only the resources they use.
Option B is incorrect: Although users may be able to configure a Lustre file system through EBS, it needs lots of extra configurations, Option A is more straightforward.
Option C is incorrect: Because the EC2 placement group does not support a Lustre file system.
Option D is incorrect: Because products in AWS Marketplace are not cost-effective. For Amazon FSx, there are no minimum fees or set-up charges. Check its pricing in https://aws.amazon.com/fsx/lustre/pricing/.
3. You host a static website in an S3 bucket and there are global clients from multiple regions. You want to use an AWS service to store cache for frequently accessed content so that the latency is reduced and the data transfer rate is increased. Which of the following options would you choose?
A. Use AWS SDKs to horizontally scale parallel requests to the Amazon S3 service endpoints.
B. Create multiple Amazon S3 buckets and put Amazon EC2 and S3 in the same AWS Region.
C. Enable Cross-Region Replication to several AWS Regions to serve customers from different locations.
D. Configure CloudFront to deliver the content in the S3 bucket.
CloudFront is able to store the frequently accessed content as a cache and the performance is optimized. Other options may help on the performance however they do not store cache for the S3 objects.
Option A is incorrect: This option may increase the throughput however it does not store cache.
Option B is incorrect: Because this option does not use cache.
Option C is incorrect: This option creates multiple S3 buckets in different regions. It does not improve the performance using cache.
Option D is CORRECT: Because CloudFront caches copies of the S3 files in its edge locations and users are routed to the edge location that has the lowest latency.
4. Your company has an online game application deployed in an Auto Scaling group. The traffic of the application is predictable. Every Friday, the traffic starts to increase, remains high on weekends and then drops on Monday. You need to plan the scaling actions for the Auto Scaling group. Which method is the most suitable for the scaling policy?
A. Configure a scheduled CloudWatch event rule to launch/terminate instances at the specified time every week.
B. Create a predefined target tracking scaling policy based on the average CPU metric and the ASG will scale automatically.
C. Select the ASG and on the Automatic Scaling tab, add a step scaling policy to automatically scale-out/in at fixed time every week.
D. Configure a scheduled action in the Auto Scaling group by specifying the recurrence, start/end time, capacities, etc.
The correct scaling policy should be scheduled scaling as it defines your own scaling schedule. Refer to https://docs.aws.amazon.com/autoscaling/ec2/userguide/schedule_time.html for details.
Option A is incorrect: This option may work. However, you have to configure a target such as a Lambda function to perform the scaling actions.
Option B is incorrect: The target tracking scaling policy defines a target for the ASG. The scaling actions do not happen based on a schedule.
Option C is incorrect: The step scaling policy does not configure the ASG to scale at a specified time.
Option D is CORRECT: With scheduled scaling, users define a schedule for the ASG to scale. This option can meet the requirements.
5. You are creating several EC2 instances for a new application. For better performance of the application, both low network latency and high network throughput are required for the EC2 instances. All instances should be launched in a single availability zone. How would you configure this?
A. Launch all EC2 instances in a placement group using a Cluster placement strategy.
B. Auto-assign a public IP when launching the EC2 instances.
C. Launch EC2 instances in an EC2 placement group and select the Spread placement strategy.
D. When launching the EC2 instances, select an instance type that supports enhanced networking.
The Cluster placement strategy helps to achieve a low-latency and high throughput network. The reference is in https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/placement-groups.html#placement-groups-limitations-partition.
Option A is CORRECT: The Cluster placement strategy can improve network performance among EC2 instances. The strategy can be selected when creating a placement group:
Option B is incorrect: Because the public IP cannot improve network performance.
Option C is incorrect: The Spread placement strategy is recommended when a number of critical instances should be kept separate from each other. This strategy should not be used in this scenario.
Option D is incorrect: The description in the option is inaccurate. The correct method is creating a placement group with a suitable placement strategy.
6. You need to deploy a machine learning application in AWS EC2. The performance of inter-instance communication is very critical for the application and you want to attach a network device to the instance so that the performance can be greatly improved. Which option is the most appropriate to improve the performance?
A. Enable enhanced networking features in the EC2 instance.
B. Configure Elastic Fabric Adapter (EFA) in the instance.
C. Attach high-speed Elastic Network Interface (ENI) in the instance.
D. Create an Elastic File System (EFS) and mount the file system in the instance.
With Elastic Fabric Adapter (EFA), users can get better performance if compared with enhanced networking (Elastic Network Adapter) or Elastic Network Interface. Check the differences between EFAs and ENAs in https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/efa.html.
Option A is incorrect: Because with Elastic Fabric Adapter (EFA), users can achieve a better network performance than enhanced networking.
Option B is CORRECT: Because EFA is the most suitable method for accelerating High-Performance Computing (HPC) and machine learning application.
Option C is incorrect: Because Elastic Network Interface (ENI) cannot improve the performance as required.
Option D is incorrect: The Elastic File System (EFS) cannot accelerate inter-instance communication.
7. You have an S3 bucket that receives photos uploaded by customers. When an object is uploaded, an event notification is sent to an SQS queue with the object details. You also have an ECS cluster that gets messages from the queue to do the batch processing. The queue size may change greatly depending on the number of incoming messages and backend processing speed. Which metric would you use to scale up/down the ECS cluster capacity?
A. The number of messages in the SQS queue.
B. Memory usage of the ECS cluster.
C. Number of objects in the S3 bucket.
D. Number of containers in the ECS cluster.
In this scenario, the SQS queue is used to store the object details which is a highly scalable and reliable service. ECS is ideal to perform batch processing and it should scale up or down based on the number of messages in the queue. Details please check https://github.com/aws-samples/ecs-refarch-batch-processing.
Option A is CORRECT: Users can configure a CloudWatch alarm based on the number of messages in the SQS queue and notify the ECS cluster to scale up or down using the alarm.
Option B is incorrect: Because memory usage may not be able to reflect the workload.
Option C is incorrect: Because the number of objects in S3 cannot determine if the ECS cluster should change its capacity.
Option D is incorrect: Because the number of containers cannot be used as a metric to trigger an auto-scaling event.
8. You are planning to build a fleet of EBS-optimized EC2 instances for your new application. Due to security compliance, your organization wants you to encrypt root volume which is used to boot the instances. How can this be achieved?
A. Select the Encryption option for the root EBS volume while launching the EC2 instance.
B. Once the EC2 instances are launched, encrypt the root volume using AWS KMS Master Key.
C. Root volumes cannot be encrypted. Add another EBS volume with an encryption option selected during launch. Once EC2 instances are launched, make encrypted EBS volume as root volume through the console.
D. Launch an unencrypted EC2 instance and create a snapshot of the root volume. Make a copy of the snapshot with the encryption option selected and CreateImage using the encrypted snapshot. Use this image to launch EC2 instances.
When launching an EC2 instance, the EBS volume for root cannot be encrypted.
You can launch the instance with unencrypted root volume and create a snapshot of the root volume. Once the snapshot is created, you can copy the snapshot where you can make the new snapshot encrypted.
9. Organization XYZ is planning to build an online chat application for their enterprise level collaboration for their employees across the world. They are looking for a single digit latency fully managed database to store and retrieve conversations. What would AWS Database service you recommend?
A. AWS DynamoDB
B. AWS RDS
C. AWS Redshift
D. AWS Aurora
10. When creating an AWS CloudFront distribution, which of the following is not an origin?
A. Elastic Load Balancer
B. AWS S3 bucket
C. AWS MediaPackage channel endpoint
D. AWS Lambda
Explanation: AWS Lambda is not supported directly as the CloudFront origin. However, Lambda can be invoked through API Gateway which can be set as the origin for AWS CloudFront.
11. Which of the following statements are true with respect to VPC? (choose multiple)
A. A subnet can have multiple route tables associated with it.
B. A network ACL can be associated with multiple subnets.
C. A route with target “local” on the route table can be edited to restrict traffic within VPC.
D. Subnet’s IP CIDR block can be same as the VPC CIDR block.
Answer: B, D
Option A is not correct. A subnet can have only one route table associated with it.
Option B is correct.
Option C is not correct.
Option D is correct.
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12. Organization ABC has a customer base in the US and Australia that would be downloading 10s of GBs files from your application. For them to have a better download experience, they decided to use the AWS S3 bucket with cross-region replication with the US as the source and Australia as the destination. They are using existing unused S3 buckets and had set up cross-region replication successfully. However, when files uploaded to the US bucket, they are not being replicated to Australia bucket. What could be the reason?
A. Versioning is not enabled on the source and destination buckets.
B. Encryption is not enabled on the source and destination buckets.
C. Source bucket has a policy with DENY and role used for replication is not excluded from DENY.
D. Destination bucket’s default CORS policy does not have source bucket added as the origin.
When you have a bucket policy which has explicit DENY, you must exclude all IAM resources which need to access the bucket.
For option A, Cross region replication cannot be enabled without enabling versioning. The question states that cross-region replication has been successfully enabled. So this option is not correct.
13. Which of the following is not a category in AWS Trusted Advisor service checks?
A. Cost Optimization
B. Fault Tolerance
C. Service Limits
D. Network Optimization
14. Your organization is building a collaboration platform for which they chose AWS EC2 for web and application servers and MySQL RDS instance as the database. Due to the nature of the traffic to the application, they would like to increase the number of connections to RDS instance. How can this be achieved?
A. Login to RDS instance and modify database config file under /etc/mysql/my.cnf
B. Create a new parameter group, attach it to DB instance and change the setting.
C. Create a new option group, attach it to DB instance and change the setting.
D. Modify setting in default options group attached to DB instance.
15. You will be launching and terminating EC2 instances on need basis for your workloads. You need to run some shell scripts and perform certain checks connecting to AWS S3 bucket when the instance is getting launched. Which of the following options will allow performing any tasks during launch? (choose multiple)
A. Use Instance user data for shell scripts.
B. Use Instance metadata for shell scripts.
C. Use AutoScaling Group lifecycle hooks and trigger AWS Lambda function through CloudWatch events.
D. Use Placement Groups and set “InstanceLaunch” state to trigger AWS Lambda functions.
Answer: A, C
Option A is correct.
Option C is correct.
16. Your organization has an AWS setup and planning to build Single Sign-On for users to authenticate with on-premise Microsoft Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS) and let users log in to AWS console using AWS STS Enterprise Identity Federation. Which of the following service do you need to call from AWS STS service after you authenticate with your on-premise?
17. How many VPCs can an Internet Gateway be attached to at any given time?
D. By default 1. But it can be attached to any VPC peered with its belonging VPC.
At any given time, an Internet Gateway can be attached to only one VPC. It can be detached from the VPC and be used for another VPC.
18. Your organization was planning to develop a web application on AWS EC2. Application admin was tasked to perform AWS setup required to spin EC2 instance inside an existing private VPC. He/she has created a subnet and wants to ensure no other subnets in the VPC can communicate with your subnet except for the specific IP address. So he/she created a new route table and associated with the new subnet. When he/she was trying to delete the route with the target as local, there is no option to delete the route. What could have caused this behavior?
A. Policy attached to IAM user does not have access to remove routes.
B. A route with the target as local cannot be deleted.
C. You cannot add/delete routes when associated with the subnet. Remove associated, add/delete routes and associate again with the subnet.
D. There must be at least one route on the route table. Add a new route to enable delete option on existing routes.
19. Which of the following are not backup and restore solutions provided by AWS? (choose multiple)
A. AWS Elastic Block Store
B. AWS Storage Gateway
C. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
D. AWS Database Migration Hub
E. AWS CloudFormation
Answer: C, E
Option A is snapshot based data backup solution.
Option B, AWS Storage Gateway provides multiple solutions for backup & recovery.
Option D can be used as a Database backup solution.
20. Organization ABC has a requirement to send emails to multiple users from their application deployed on EC2 instance in a private VPC. Email receivers will not be IAM users. You have decided to use AWS Simple Email Service and configured from email address. You are using AWS SES API to send emails from your EC2 instance to multiple users. However, email sending getting failed. Which of the following options could be the reason?
A. You have not created VPC endpoint for SES service and configured in the route table.
B. AWS SES is in sandbox mode by default which can send emails only to verified email addresses.
C. IAM user of configured from email address does not have access AWS SES to send emails.
D. AWS SES cannot send emails to addresses which are not configured as IAM users. You have to use the SMTP service provided by AWS.
Amazon SES is an email platform that provides an easy, cost-effective way for you to send and receive email using your own email addresses and domains.
For example, you can send marketing emails such as special offers, transactional emails such as order confirmations, and other types of correspondence such as newsletters. When you use Amazon SES to receive mail, you can develop software solutions such as email autoresponders, email unsubscribe systems and applications that generate customer support tickets from incoming emails.
21. You have configured AWS S3 event notification to send a message to AWS Simple Queue Service whenever an object is deleted. You are performing ReceiveMessage API operation on the AWS SQS queue to receive the S3 delete object message onto AWS EC2 instance. For any successful message operations, you are deleting them from the queue. For failed operations, you are not deleting the messages. You have developed a retry mechanism which reruns the application every 5 minutes for failed RecieveMessage operations. However, you are not receiving the messages again during the rerun. What could have caused this?
A. AWS SQS deletes the message after it has been read through ReceiveMessage API
B. You are using Long Polling which does not guarantee message delivery.
C. Failed RecieveMessage queue messages are automatically sent to Dead Letter Queues. You need to RecieveMessage from Dead Letter Queue for failed retries.
D. Visibility Timeout on the SQS queue is set to 10 minutes.
Answer: D When a consumer receives and processes a message from a queue, the message remains in the queue. Amazon SQS doesn’t automatically delete the message. Because Amazon SQS is a distributed system, there’s no guarantee that the consumer actually receives the message (for example, due to a connectivity issue, or due to an issue in the consumer application). Thus, the consumer must delete the message from the queue after receiving and processing it.
22. You had set up an internal HTTP(S) Elastic Load Balancer to route requests to two EC2 instances inside a private VPC. However, one of the target EC2 instance is showing Unhealthy status. Which of the following options could not be a reason for this?
A. Port 80/443 is not allowed on EC2 instance’s Security Group from the load balancer.
B. An EC2 instance is in different availability zones than load balancer.
C. The ping path does not exist on the EC2 instance.
D. The target did not return a successful response code
If a target is taking longer than expected to enter the InService state, it might be failing health checks. Your target is not in service until it passes one health check.
23. Your organization has an existing VPC setup and has a requirement to route any traffic going from VPC to AWS S3 bucket through AWS internal network. So they have created VPC endpoint for S3 and configured to allow traffic for S3 buckets. The application you are developing involves sending traffic to AWS S3 bucket from VPC for which you planned to use a similar approach. You have created a new route table, added route to VPC endpoint and associated route table with your new subnet. However, when you are trying to send a request from EC2 to S3 bucket using AWS CLI, the request is getting failed with 403 access denied errors. What could be causing the failure?
A. AWS S3 bucket is in the different region than your VPC.
B. EC2 security group outbound rules not allowing traffic to S3 prefix list.
C. VPC endpoint might have a restrictive policy and does not contain the new S3 bucket.
D. S3 bucket CORS configuration does not have EC2 instance as the origin.
Option A is not correct. The question states “403 access denied”. If the S3 bucket is in a different region than VPC, the request looks for a route with NAT Gateway or Internet Gateway. If exists, the request goes through the internet to S3. If does not exist, the request gets failed with connection refused or connection timed out. Not with an error “403 access denied”.
Option B is not correct. Same as above, when the security group does not allow traffic, the failure cause will be 403 access denied.
Option C is correct.
Option D is not correct.
Cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) defines a way for client web applications that are loaded in one domain to interact with resources in a different domain. With CORS support, you can build rich client-side web applications with Amazon S3 and selectively allow cross-origin access to your Amazon S3 resources.
In this case, the request is not coming from a web client.
24. You have launched an RDS instance with MySQL database with default configuration for your file sharing application to store all the transactional information. Due to security compliance, your organization wants to encrypt all the databases and storage on the cloud. They approached you to perform this activity on your MySQL RDS database. How can you achieve this?
A. Copy snapshot from latest snapshot of your RDS instance, select encryption during copy and restore a new DB instance from the newly encrypted snapshot.
B. Stop the RDS instance, modify and select encryption option. Start the RDS instance, it may take a while to start RDS instance as existing data is getting encrypted.
C. Create a case with AWS support to enable encryption for your RDS instance.
D. AWS RDS is a managed service and the data at rest in all RDS instances are encrypted by default.
25. Which of the following is an AWS component which consumes resources from your VPC?
A. Internet Gateway
B. Gateway VPC Endpoints
C. Elastic IP Addresses
D. NAT Gateway
Option A is not correct.
An internet gateway is an AWS component which sits outside of your VPC does not consume any resources from your VPC.
Option B is not correct.
Endpoints are virtual devices. They are horizontally scaled, redundant, and highly available VPC components that allow communication between instances in your VPC and services without imposing availability risks or bandwidth constraints on your network traffic.
Option C is not correct.
An Elastic IP address is a static, public IPv4 address designed for dynamic cloud computing. You can associate an Elastic IP address with any instance or network interface for any VPC in your account. With an Elastic IP address, you can mask the failure of an instance by rapidly remapping the address to another instance in your VPC.
They do not belong to a single VPC.
Option D is correct.
To create a NAT gateway, you must specify the public subnet in which the NAT gateway should reside. For more information about public and private subnets, see Subnet Routing. You must also specify an Elastic IP address to associate with the NAT gateway when you create it. After you’ve created a NAT gateway, you must update the route table associated with one or more of your private subnets to point Internet-bound traffic to the NAT gateway. This enables instances in your private subnets to communicate with the internet.
26. You have successfully set up a VPC peering connection in your account between two VPCs – VPC A and VPC B, each in a different region. When you are trying to make a request from VPC A to VPC B, request getting failed. Which of the following could be a reason?
A. Cross-region peering is not supported in AWS
B. CIDR blocks of both VPCs might be overlapping.
C. Routes not configured in route tables for peering connections.
D. VPC A security group default outbound rules not allowing traffic to VPC B IP range.
Option A is not correct. Cross-region VPC peering is supported in AWS.
Option B is not correct.
When the VPC IP CIDR blocks are overlapping, you cannot create a peering connection. Question states the peering connection was successful.
Option C is correct.
To send private IPv4 traffic from your instance to an instance in a peer VPC, you must add a route to the route table that’s associated with your subnet in which your instance resides. The route points to the CIDR block (or portion of the CIDR block) of the peer VPC in the VPC peering connection.
Option D is not correct.
A security group’s default outbound rule allows all traffic going out from the resources attached to the security group.
27. Which of the following statements are true in terms of allowing/denying traffic from/to VPC assuming the default rules are not in effect? (choose multiple)
A. In a Network ACL, for a successful HTTPS connection, add an inbound rule with HTTPS type, IP range in source and ALLOW traffic.
B. In a Network ACL, for a successful HTTPS connection, you must add an inbound rule and outbound rule with HTTPS type, IP range in source and destination respectively and ALLOW traffic.
C. In a Security Group, for a successful HTTPS connection, add an inbound rule with HTTPS type and IP range in the source.
D. In a Security Group, for a successful HTTPS connection, you must add an inbound rule and outbound rule with HTTPS type, IP range in source and destination respectively.
Answer: B, C
Security groups are stateful — if you send a request from your instance, the response traffic for that request is allowed to flow in regardless of inbound security group rules. Responses to allowed inbound traffic are allowed to flow out, regardless of outbound rules.
Network ACLs are stateless; responses to allowed inbound traffic are subject to the rules for outbound traffic (and vice versa).
Option A is not correct. NACL must have an outbound rule defined for a successful connection due to its stateless nature.
Option B is correct.
Option C is correct.
Configuring an inbound rule in a security group is enough for a successful connection due to is stateful nature.
Option D is not correct.
Configuring an outbound rule for incoming connection is not required in security groups.
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So, here we’ve presented 20 Free AWS Solutions Architect exam questions for the Associate-level exam. Definitely, these AWS CSAA practice questions would have helped you to check your preparation level and boost your confidence for the exam. We at Whizlabs are aimed to prepare you for the AWS Certified Solutions Architect Associate exam (SAA-C02).
So, we offer 25 more AWS Certified Solutions Architect Associate Exam FREE Questions and AWS Certified Solutions Architect Associate Practice Exam with 988 unique questions that you can try to get prepared for the exam. Practicing through a number of practice questions make you confident enough to pass the certification exam in the first attempt.
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