In today’s digital age, cloud computing has revolutionized the way organizations store, access, and manage their data. With the ever-growing reliance on cloud services, ensuring the security of sensitive information has become paramount. This is where the CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional certification steps in, providing individuals with the expertise and skills to navigate the complex world of cloud security.
The practice tests provided here serve the purpose of acquainting you with the ISC2 Cloud Security Professional exam. By going through these sample questions, you will gain a comprehensive understanding of the question types and difficulty levels that you may encounter in the Cloud Security Professional (CCSP) certification exam.
In this blog post, we provide real-time scenario-based Certified Cloud Security Professional (CCSP) questions and answers for you to dive deep into the concepts. These practice tests not only simulate the real exam atmosphere but also offers valuable insights into the types of questions that are commonly asked in the actual ISC2 Certified Cloud Security Professional (CCSP) certification exam.
Let’s dig in!
Top 25 Free Questions on Certified Cloud Security Professional (CCSP)
Here are some free questions for the Certified Cloud Security Professional (CCSP) certification exam:
Domain: Cloud Concepts, Architecture, and Design
Question 1: Cloud computing give consumers an abstract view of infinitely available resources, but at a basic level, it needs physical hardware i.e., storage, network, compute, etc. What is the term that defines the process of connecting and delivering the tools that tie these abstracted resources together, create the resource pool, and facilitate automation to make them available to consumers? Select the right option from the choices below.
A. Automation
B. Orchestration
C. Containerization
D. Abstraction
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Cloud Orchestration is the combination of underlying resources, workloads, automation capabilities, and infrastructure.
Option A is incorrect: As explained, automation is just one part of the overall process. Hence, this option alone is incorrect.
Option B is correct: As explained, Orchestration is the term that describes the process of connecting and delivering underlying resources as one infinite pool with automation capabilities.
Option C is incorrect: Containerization is not related to cloud infrastructure. It is a technology that enables developers to develop cloud-native apps.
Option D is incorrect: Abstraction is the experience of having access to an infinite pool of resources that users get while using cloud service.
Reference:
To know more about orchestration, please refer to the link below: https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/orchestration-in-cloud-computing/
Domain: Cloud Concepts, Architecture, and Design
Question 2: What is the term that describes the mechanism that facilitates the interconnection between infrastructure and other supporting technologies, applications, and data?
A. Metastructure
B. Infostructure
C. Abstraction
D. Automation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Metastructure is defined as the protocols and mechanisms that provide the interface between the infrastructure layer and the other layers.
Option A is correct: As explained, Metastructure is the layer that provides an interface between the infrastructure layer and the other layers.
Option B is incorrect: Infostructure refers to data and information. Hence, it is not the correct option.
Option C is incorrect: Abstraction is the experience of having access to an infinite pool of resources that users get while using cloud service.
Option D is incorrect: Automation is just one part of the overall process. Hence, this option alone is incorrect.
Reference:
To know more about logical model and metastructure, please refer to the link below: https://github.com/cloudsecurityalliance/CSA-Guidance/blob/master/Domain%201-%20Cloud%20Computing%20Concepts%20and%20Architectures.md#114-logical-model
Domain: Cloud Concepts, Architecture, and Design
Question 3: A workload can be described as a unit of processing in the cloud. Workloads consume memory and run on a processor somewhere in the cloud. Which among the following cannot be identified as a workload in the cloud?
A. Logic procedures
B. Containers
C. Virtual Machines
D. Hyper V
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Hyper V is a hardware virtualization product. It lets you run virtual machines on a computer. It is not a cloud workload.
Option A is incorrect: Logic procedure is an example of platform-based workloads. Platform-based workloads may not run on virtual machines or containers but can usually run on shared platforms like databases.
Option B is incorrect: Containers are used for code execution in the cloud. They can run on virtual machines as well as directly on the hardware.
Option C is incorrect: This is not directly related to risk and governance in the cloud. This is suitable to be included in a technical document.
References:
To know more about workloads in cloud, please refer to the link below: https://www.dell.com/en-in/dt/learn/cloud/cloud-workloads.htm, https://www.cyberark.com/what-is/cloud-workload-security/
Domain: Cloud Concepts, Architecture, and Design
Question 4: An immutable workload in the cloud is something where changes cannot be made to the running workload. Which of the following is a security benefit of immutable workloads?
A. Easy to patch
B. Much faster to roll out updated versions of workloads
C. No need for security testing as changes cannot be made
D. No need for managing a service catalogue for images
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Immutable workloads are much faster to roll out updated versions of workloads, as administrators need not worry about application inconsistencies, patching errors, etc. All this can be tested during image creation which facilitates a faster rollout.
Option A is incorrect: Patching is not required for immutable images. The entire image is replaced with an updated one.
Option C is incorrect: Security testing is very much required and is done at the time of image creation.
Option D is incorrect: With an immutable workload, the complexity gets increased. There could be hundreds of images in an organization. This demands a service catalogue to be created that inventories the images.
References:
To know more about immutable workloads in the cloud, please refer to the link below: https://glossary.cncf.io/immutable-infrastructure/, https://www.eplexity.com/blog/a-side-by-side-comparison-of-immutable-vs-mutable-infrastructure
Domain: Cloud Data Security
Question 5: You are the data security officer for a software company. You are creating the blueprint for protecting data in the cloud. Which of the following controls/processes can you skip in this blueprint?
A. Access Control
B. Data Loss Prevention
C. Breach Notification
D. Monitoring and alerting
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Breach notification is a part of the risk, governance, and compliance. Hence, this can be skipped from the data security blueprint but should include risk, governance, and compliance controls.
Option A is incorrect: Access control is an important aspect of data security. It protects data from unauthorized access. This cannot be skipped.
Option B is incorrect: Data loss prevention is a combination of technology, process, and people and it protects from unauthorized disclosure of data to unintended recipients. This cannot be skipped.
Option D is incorrect: Monitoring and alerting are important for incident management and detecting attempts for data exfiltration. This is mandatory to adhere to regulatory requirements as well. This cannot be skipped.
References:
To know more about data security in the cloud, please refer to the link below: https://www.exabeam.com/explainers/cloud-security/cloud-security-controls-key-elements-and-4-control-frameworks/, https://www.sailpoint.com/identity-library/data-security-in-cloud-computing/, https://www.symmetry-systems.com/blog/data-security-in-cloud-computing
Domain: Cloud Data Security
Question 6: You are the data security officer for a software company. You are designing the controls for information lifecycle management in the cloud. Which of the following is a relevant control for this phase?
A. Encryption
B. Enterprise rights management
C. Managing data location/residency
D. Data backup
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Managing data residency is part of information life cycle management. This includes creating provisions for storing data in different geographies as per local law and other regulatory requirements.
Option A is incorrect: Encryption is a data security control. This is not part of information life cycle management.
Option B is incorrect: Enterprise rights management is also a data security control. This is not part of information life cycle management.
Option D is incorrect: Data backup is a data security and availability-related control.
References:
To know more about information life cycle management in cloud, please refer to the link below: https://theecmconsultant.com/information-lifecycle-management/, https://www.veritas.com/information-center/information-lifecycle-management
Domain: Cloud Data Security
Question 7: You are the data security officer for a software company. You are designing the controls for monitoring and protecting data exchanged between external apps and your tenant in a public cloud platform. Which technology would you choose to monitor and prevent data transfer to data file-sharing services?
A. Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
B. Endpoint Detect and Response (EDR)
C. Proxy
D. Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Cloud access security broker is used for security policy enforcement between cloud consumer and cloud provider. They are also used for gaining visibility and deploying protective controls for external apps integrated with your cloud tenant.
Option A is incorrect: DLP can be used for preventing unauthorized data disclosure over clouds but is not fully effective in the case of external apps. Hence, this is incorrect.
Option B is incorrect: EDR is an endpoint security technology. Hence, this is incorrect.
Option C is incorrect: Proxy can be used to enforce controls on the data transfer over mostly port 80 and 44. It can be used to control data transfer to some extent; however, it cannot govern data transfer between cloud and external apps.
References:
To know more about CASB, please refer to the link below: https://www.gartner.com/en/information-technology/glossary/cloud-access-security-brokers-casbs, https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/access-management/what-is-a-casb/
Domain: Cloud Data Security
Question 8: You are the data security officer for a software company. You are designing the data security controls for protecting data stored on file storage in the cloud. Which among the following is not a relevant control for protecting data on file storage in the cloud?
A. Client-Side encryption
B. Server-side encryption
C. Proxy encryption
D. Instance-managed encryption
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Instance-managed or instance-based encryption is used for protecting volume storage. Here the encryption engine runs within the instance and the key is stored in the volume. Instance-based encryption lets a user to access data only via volume OS and protects from physical loss as well.
Option A is incorrect: Client-side encryption is a mechanism to protect data in file storage. Here, the encryption engine is loaded in the application or client that is stored on the object storage. Hence, this is incorrect.
Option B is incorrect: Server-side encryption is a mechanism to protect data in file storage. Here, data is encrypted on the server side after being transferred there. Hence, this is also incorrect.
Option C is incorrect: Proxy encryption is also a mechanism to protect data in file storage. Here, an external encryption instance is used for all encryption operations. Hence, this is also incorrect.
Reference:
To know more about encryption in object and file storage, please refer to the link below: https://securosis.com/blog/iaas-encryption-object-storage
Domain: Cloud Data Security
Question 9: You are the data Technical Director for a stock trading company. Your company stores lots of highly confidential financial data of its customers on the cloud and on-premises. You are choosing between options for key management in your company. Out of the following options, which one you would not choose?
A. Hardware Security Module (HSM)
B. Key Escrow
C. Cloud provider service
D. Virtual Appliance
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Key escrow is a key exchange process where keys are held by a third party, in escrow.
Option A is incorrect: HSM is a physical device designed specifically for storing keys. It is used along with a key management system for the storage and usage of keys. Hence, this is incorrect.
Option B is correct: Key escrow is not a suitable option for key management.
Option C is incorrect: As a cloud consumer, you can use the key management service offered by the cloud provider. Hence, this is also incorrect.
Option D is incorrect: This option includes using a virtual appliance for key management operations in the cloud. Hence, this is also incorrect.
References:
To know more about key management, please refer to the link below: https://www.encryptionconsulting.com/education-center/what-is-key-management/, https://www.tutorialspoint.com/what-is-key-management-in-information-security
Domain: Cloud Data Security
Question 10: You are the data security officer for a software company. You have to choose an encryption algorithm suitable for the long-term storage of data. Which of the following is the correct choice?
A. Homomorphic encryption
B. RSA Algorithm
C. AES 256
D. SHA 256
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
AES 256 is the most suitable choice for encrypting data in long-term storage. It is faster and requires moderate memory to encrypt/decrypt data and provides excellent security.
Option A is incorrect: Homomorphic encryption is usually used for protecting data in use. It is also highly resource intensive. Hence, this is incorrect.
Option B is incorrect: RSA is usually used for data in motion. It is an asymmetric key algorithm which means that it uses one key for encryption and another for decryption. This is not suitable for encrypting data in long term storage. Hence, this is also incorrect.
Option D is incorrect: SHA or Secure Hash Algorithm is a hashing algorithm. It only provides one-way encryption, and the cipher text cannot be decrypted. Hence, this is also incorrect.
References:
To know more about encryption algorithms to protect data at rest, please refer to the link below: https://satoricyber.com/data-masking/data-encryption-top-7-algorithms-and-5-best-practices/, https://crypto.stackexchange.com/questions/47991/aes-vs-rsa-which-is-stronger-given-two-scenarios, https://www.researchgate.net/figure/Comparison-table-between-AES-DES-and-RSA_tbl3_333755102
Domain: Cloud Platform and Infrastructure Security
Question 11. You are the Security Administrator of a cloud service provider. You are doing an assessment to determine the benefits of using Software-Defined Networks (SDN). The result of this assessment will be presented to the CxO group. Which of the following options will not be part of the list of benefits of SDN?
- Difficult to manage as the network becomes complex with all the dynamic components.
- Isolation is easier.
- Easy to secure assets.
- Easy to configure.
Answer: A
Explanation: With SDNs, management of the network becomes easy. All the configurations can be done in the control plane and then the data travels as per the configuration made. Also, it removes the need to travel to the physical servers, hence making the administration and management tasks very easy.
Option B is incorrect: SDN separates management, control, and data planes. It also allows the creation of as many isolated networks as required without the restrictions of the physical hardware. Isolation becomes easy with SDN. Hence, this option is incorrect.
Option C is incorrect: SDN rules and security groups can let admins apply restrictions to assets more flexibly than hardware-based firewalls since they are not dependent on the physical topology. Hence, this option must be included in the list of benefits and is thus incorrect.
Option D is incorrect: SDN is easy to configure as they are free from the limitations of physical devices. Hence, this option must be included in the list of benefits and is thus incorrect.
Reference: To know more about SDN, please refer to the link below:
Domain: Cloud Platform and Infrastructure Security
Question 12. You are the Security Administrator of a cloud service provider. You are drafting some network best practices guidelines to be followed in your organization. Which of the following options will not be part of this list of best practices?
- Prefer Software Defined Network (SDN)
- Implement default configurations.
- Configure cloud firewalls basis workloads, instead of basis networks.
- Minimize dependency on virtual appliances to boost performance.
Answer: B
Explanation: Default configurations must never be used as they can be easily compromised. All default configurations must be changed and replaced with stronger ones that meet the protection requirements.
Option A is incorrect: SDN must be preferred wherever possible as it offers more security, isolation, flexibility, and ease of management. Hence, this option must be included in the best practices and is thus incorrect.
Option C is incorrect: Configuring firewall rules based on workloads provides a granular level of security. Hence, this option must be included in the list of benefits and is thus incorrect.
Option D is incorrect: Virtual appliances have been known to cause issues like bottlenecks and performance degradation. For example, if the virtual appliance does not support elastic licensing, then it may cause issues with auto-scaling. Hence, this option must be included in the best practices and is thus incorrect.
Reference: To know more about network best practices, please refer to the link below:
https://www.ekransystem.com/en/blog/cloud-infrastructure-security
https://www.rapid7.com/fundamentals/cloud-network-security/
Domain: Cloud Platform and Infrastructure Security
Question 13. You are the Security Administrator of a Cloud Service Provider (CSP). You are drafting the responsibilities of your organization as the cloud service provider. Which of the following options will not be part of this list of responsibilities?
- Inherently secure any underlying physical infrastructure
- Provide appropriate security capabilities at virtualization layers
- Secure all virtualization and physical infra from physical attacks or internal compromise
- Secure all customer’s data and deploy controls on their behalf
Answer: D
Explanation: It is the customer’s responsibility to select and deploy controls to safeguard their data in the cloud. As a cloud provider, you can enable them with the required technology to deploy controls but it’s not the cloud provider’s responsibility to secure customers’ data on their behalf.
Option A is incorrect: It is the duty of the CSP to secure all physical infrastructure used in the cloud to provide services to the customer. Hence, this option must be included in the list of responsibilities and is thus incorrect.
Option B is incorrect: Since the CSP owns and manages the infrastructure supporting the virtualization layers in the cloud, it is the responsibility of the CSP to provide appropriate security capabilities to secure it. Hence, this option must be included in the list of responsibilities and is thus incorrect.
Option C is incorrect: Since the CSP owns and manages the infrastructure, it’s the CSP’s responsibility to protect it from physical attacks and internal compromise. Hence, this option must be included in the list of benefits and is thus incorrect.
Reference: To know more about shared responsibility model, please refer to the link below:
https://www.crowdstrike.com/cybersecurity-101/cloud-security/shared-responsibility-model/
https://aws.amazon.com/compliance/shared-responsibility-model/
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/shared-responsibility
Domain: Cloud Platform and Infrastructure Security
Question 14. You are the Security Administrator of a software development company. You are drafting best practices guidelines to be followed for containers. Which of the following options will not be part of this list of best practices?
- Any container images and codes can be deployed as long as they are done by authorized users
- Implement Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
- Protect the container management software stack
- Use physical and virtual machines to facilitate container isolation
Answer: A
Explanation: Only trusted, approved, or known container images and codes must be deployed. Allowing any container images/codes even by authorized employees can lead to running malicious container images in your environment, hence it must not be allowed.
Option B is incorrect: RBAC provides an added layer of security and prevents actions from unauthorized users. Hence, this option must be included in the list of best practices.
Option C is incorrect: It is innately important to protect the container management stack as this is the part that governs the containers in your environment. Hence, this option must be included in the list of best practices.
Option D is incorrect: Using physical and virtual machines for container isolation lets you group containers with the same security context on the same virtual and physical hosts. This makes management easy. Hence, this option must be included in the list of best practices.
Reference: To know more about container security, please refer to the link below:
https://www.tigera.io/learn/guides/container-security-best-practices/
https://sysdig.com/blog/container-security-best-practices/
https://www.trendmicro.com/en_us/devops/22/b/container-security-best-practices.html
Domain: Cloud Application Security
Question 15. Cloud computing brings a lot of benefits to application development. Below is a list of such benefits, however, one of the options is not a benefit but a challenge. Please identify the option which is not a benefit.
- Elasticity
- Ready to use platform for app development
- Increased scope of applications to secure
- Security Baseline
Answer: C
Explanation: With the cloud, administrators, and developers have an added responsibility to protect the management plane as it is used for configuration purposes. Additionally, data and sensitive information like passwords, and URLs may also be exposed in the management plane. So this comes as an added responsibility or challenge for admins and developers.
Option A is incorrect: Elasticity enables us to scale and reduce as per demand. This is a benefit and hence, it is not the correct option.
Option B is incorrect: This obviously is beneficial. Earlier development platforms needed to be created which was a time-intensive task. Now it is available on demand. This is a benefit and hence, it is not the correct option.
Option D is incorrect: Security baseline allows admins to create a minimum-security baseline that must be followed throughout all development environments. This reduces effort. This is a benefit and hence, it is not the correct option.
Reference: To know more about such benefits, please refer to the link below:
https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/advantages-and-disadvantages-of-cloud-security/
https://www.nutanix.com/info/what-is-application-security
Domain: Cloud Application Security
Question 16. Which of the following is a framework for Secure Software Development Lifecycle (SSDLC)?
- NIST SP 800-218
- ISO/IEC 15408
- NIST 800-55
- NIST SP 800-53
Answer: A
Explanation: The NIST Special Publication (SP) 800-218, Secure Software Development Framework (SSDF) is a set of secure software development practices. It is based on secure software development standards like Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP), SAFECode, etc.
Option B is incorrect: ISO/IEC 15408 is the common criterion for IT security evaluation for IT product security certification. Hence, it is not the correct option.
Option C is incorrect: The NIST SP 800-55, Performance Measurement Guide for Information Security, is a guideline for cybersecurity performance measurement. Hence, it is not the correct option.
Option D is incorrect: The NIST SP 800-53 is the standard that talks about Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations. Hence, it is not the correct option.
Reference: To know more about secure SDLC, please refer to the link below:
https://its.ny.gov/secure-system-development-life-cycle-standard
https://www.synopsys.com/blogs/software-security/secure-sdlc/
https://www.softwaretestinghelp.com/measures-for-ssdlc/
Domain: Cloud Application Security
Question 17. You are the penetration tester for a professional services firm. You have been asked to perform the Penetration Test (PT) for a newly created artificial intelligence-based tool that will be used by your customers. Your team is deciding the scope of the PT. From the options listed below, which one can be included in the scope of the PT?
- All external facing Internet Protocol (IP) addresses as the application will be used by external customer
- All business users in the organization
- Developers and administrators who support the application
- Test and Dev environments of the application
Answer: C
Explanation: Many targeted attacks focus on compromising the credentials of the developers and administrators who support the application. So, this must be included in the scope.
Option A is incorrect: External-facing IP addresses may be included in the scope for an organization-wide penetration test (PT). Since this PT is just for the application, hence this will not be required.
Option B is incorrect: There is no need to include all business users in the organization. Hence, it is not the correct option.
Option D is incorrect: Test and Dev environments can be included in the scope if they are somehow connected to the production environment or use real production data, else there is no need. Since it’s not specified in the question that these environments are connected to the production, hence this should not be included in the scope.
Reference: To know more about application penetration testing, please refer to the link below:
https://www.synopsys.com/glossary/what-is-web-application-penetration-testing.html
Domain: Cloud Application Security
Question 18. Which of the following is not TRUE about Application Programming Interface (API) security while creating and integrating API from different API endpoints?
- All APIs must be extensively hardened
- Only use stateful APIs because they maintain state
- APIs should be monitored for unusual activities
- All APIs must be extensively tested and validated before use
Answer: B
Explanation: It’s not a best practice to use Stateful APIs. Any API that is tested, hardened, and monitored can be used as long as it’s from a trusted source. As a matter of fact, all REST APIs are stateless and widely used. All other options are TRUE about API Security except Option B
Option A is incorrect: This is true; all APIs must be hardened. Hence, this is not the correct option.
Option C is incorrect: This is true; it is recommended best practice to monitor APIs for unusual activities. Hence, this is not the correct option.
Option D is incorrect: This is true; this is also a best practice to test and validate APIs before use. Hence, this is not the correct option.
Reference: To know more about API security, please refer to the link below:
https://blog.hubspot.com/website/api-security
https://owasp.org/www-project-api-security/
Domain: Cloud Security Operations
Question 19. You are the Policy Manager for a Cloud Service Provider (CSP). You are writing the policy for Incident Management and Response. You have to outline the purpose of Incident Management and Response (IR) in your organization. Which of the following is not a good candidate to be included as a purpose for IR ?
- Ensure user satisfaction
- Restore normal service operation as fast as possible
- Availability and service quality are maintained
- Minimize the impact on business operations
Answer: A
Explanation: Ensuring user satisfaction is not a purpose of incident management and response. All other options are valid, except Option A.
Option B is incorrect: Restoring services back to normal is one of the primary purposes of any IR program. Hence, this option is incorrect in the context of the question.
Option C is incorrect: Ensuring service quality and availability of resources is again one of the important purposes of the IR program. Hence, this option is incorrect in the context of the question.
Option D is incorrect: Any IR program aims to minimize the business impact on its operation. Hence, this option is incorrect in the context of the question.
Reference: To know more about incident management, please refer to the link below:
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cyberpedia/unit-42-cloud-incident-response
https://cloudsecurityalliance.org/artifacts/cloud-incident-response-framework/
Domain: Cloud Security Operations
Question 20. You are the Incident Manager for a Cloud Service Provider (CSP). You are drafting the plan for Incident Management and Response (IR) for your organization. Out of the options listed below, which can you skip from including in your IR plan ?
- Incident definition
- Incident management process from detection to closure
- Inventory of all critical assets
- Responsibility matrix for customer, vendors, and employees involved
Answer: C
Explanation: Inventory of all critical assets can be maintained as a separate document. This should be a document that is updated constantly. However, it’s not mandatory to include it in IR Plan.
Option A is incorrect: It is important to include the definition of an incident, event, problem, etc. in the plan so that it is clear and unambiguous. Since it should be included in the plan, hence this option is incorrect in the context of the question.
Option B is incorrect: IR plan will be incomplete without this process flow. This informs all involved parties the steps to be taken starting from detection, and triage to resolution and closure. Since it should be included in the plan, hence this option is incorrect in the context of the question.
Option D is incorrect: Responsibility matrix is critically important for an IR plan. This clearly outlines the responsibilities and helps avoid confusion and clearly calls out the duties of involved parties. Since it should be included in the plan, hence this option is incorrect in the context of the question.
Reference: To know more about incident management, please refer to the link below:
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cyberpedia/unit-42-cloud-incident-response
https://cloudsecurityalliance.org/artifacts/cloud-incident-response-framework/
Domain: Cloud Security Operations
Question 21. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the relation between release and deployment management and change management?
- All change management activities should be part of release and deployment management
- All releases and deployments must be signed off and approved by the change board
- Both are mutually exclusive processes
- Release and deployment management and change management are similar activities so anyone among them can be followed.
Answer: B
Explanation: Release and deployments are a type of change so they must follow the established change management process. All new releases or deployments must be approved and signed off by the Change Advisory Board (CAB) and then rolled out.
Option A is incorrect: This is incorrect. All release and deployment activities should adhere to the change management process.
Option C is incorrect: Both processes are not mutually exclusive, they are closely related to each other. Release and deployment management must adhere to the change management process.
Option D is incorrect: This is incorrect. They may appear like similar activities, however, change management governs release and deployment management.
Reference: To know more about incident management, please refer to the link below:
https://www.plutora.com/blog/the-link-between-change-management-and-release-management
https://www.freshworks.com/freshservice/itil/itil-change-management-vs-release-mgmt-blog/
https://www.easyvista.com/blog/itil-change-management-and-release-management-complete-guide
Domain: Cloud Security Operations
Question 22. Your company has recently deployed patches in your cloud tenant. After the patching process was completed, a lot of developers reported that their development environments crashed. A high-severity incident was raised and post-investigation, it was discovered that an update related to Apache caused the crash. Your company follows a simple patch management process where relevant patches are identified, acquired on a patching server, and installed on all machines. As a CCSP what improvement would you suggest to your organization’s patching process?
- Install patches in a phased manner to minimize the impact
- Do not patch critical machines as it may cause an interruption and lead to business loss
- Test and verify patches before installing them
- Patch directly from the internet. The machines will pick the required patches automatically.
Answer: C
Explanation: Testing and verifying patches before deploying them in production is a critical part of the patch management process. Patching activity should not be done without testing and verifying each patch.
Option A is incorrect: This will minimize the impact however; patching will take a lot longer with this approach leading to machines becoming vulnerable to exploits. Hence, this is incorrect.
Option B is incorrect: This should never be done. All systems must be patched as not installing patches will make systems vulnerable to exploits. Patches should be tested to avoid any business interruption.
Option D is incorrect: This option can work but not for large organizations. Additionally, there is no testing and verification involved in this option, hence the problem stated in the question can always occur.
Reference: To know more about patch management, please refer to the link below:
https://www.redhat.com/en/topics/management/what-patch-management-and-automation
https://www.rapid7.com/fundamentals/patch-management/
https://www.techtarget.com/searchenterprisedesktop/definition/patch-management
Domain: Legal, Risk, and Compliance
Question 23. You are the risk and governance officer in an oil and gas company. Your company uses Internet of Things (IoT) devices and edge computing which is connected to your company’s private cloud. You have been tasked with preparing a policy structure for your organization. Which of the following wouldn’t be included in your organization’s policy?
- Compliance and Audit management
- Contracts and Legal
- IoT device specifications
- Information Governance
Answer: C
Explanation: IoT device specifications will not be a part of the organization’s policy structure as this is operation information. This could be part of a technical standard or a similar document.
Option A is incorrect: Compliance and audit management are critical for effective risk management. Hence, this must be included.
Option B is incorrect: Contracts and Legal form the basis of handling potential legal issues when using cloud computing. This can include protection requirements, data localization requirements, breach notifications, etc. This must be included.
Option D is incorrect: This includes governing data stored in the cloud. Data being the most important asset in any organization warrants strong governance. Hence, this must be included.
Reference: To know more about governance in cloud, please refer to the link below:
Domain: Legal, Risk, and Compliance
Question 24. Customers usually have reduced ability to control operations in a public cloud as the Cloud Service Provider (CSP) manages the operation. This is one of the operational drawbacks of the public cloud. Similarly, the public cloud has another drawback from a legal and contract perspective. From the list below, select the most correct option that is a drawback.
- Reduced ability to negotiate contracts
- Reduced ability to negotiate Service Level Agreements (SLA)
- Paying the higher cost for services
- Reduced option to customize the service stack
Answer: A
Explanation: Reduced ability to negotiate a contract is the correct option as it broadly covers option B and Option C as well. Additionally, the public cloud doesn’t let consumers negotiate a lot because it affects the CSP’s capability to provide consistent services to all its customers.
Option B is incorrect: This is also true, but it’s broadly covered in Option A. Hence, this is not the most correct option.
Option C is incorrect: This is not correct because in the cloud you only pay for what you use.
Option D is incorrect: This is also true, but it’s broadly covered in Option A. Hence, this is not the most correct option.
Reference: To know more about cloud negotiation, please refer to the link below:
https://www.gartner.com/smarterwithgartner/best-practices-for-cloud-negotiation
Domain: Legal, Risk, and Compliance
Question 25. As more organizations move to the cloud, the risk management approach is also going through a paradigm shift. There are trade-offs to managing enterprise risk in the cloud. As a CCSP you have been tasked with creating a methodology for cloud provider risk assessment. Choose the option/step from the list below that you can skip from this methodology.
- Contract review
- Scanning cloud providers’ public IPs for vulnerabilities
- Self-assessment questionnaire
- Conducting a review of audit and attestation reports
Answer: B
Explanation: Scanning cloud providers’ public IPs for vulnerabilities is not the right thing to do for several reasons. Firstly, it might be illegal and may end up in the termination of the contract and a lawsuit. Secondly, you must focus on the environment that your organization uses. Third, its the cloud provider’s responsibility to secure the underlying infrastructure as per the shared responsibility model.
Option A is incorrect: Contract reviews are one of the ways to assess the risk. Hence this option is incorrect in the context of the question.
Option C is incorrect: Self-assessment questionnaire is one of the most commonly used ways for assessing the risk posture of cloud service providers. Hence this option is incorrect in the context of the question.
Option D is incorrect: Reviewing attestation and audit reports like SOC 2, SOC 3, SSAE 16, ISO/IEC 27001, etc. gives an idea about the information security controls that the cloud provider has deployed. This gives cloud customers a good idea about how well their data is protected in the cloud provider’s environment.
Reference: To know more about risk assessment in the cloud, please refer to the link below:
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/compliance/assurance/assurance-risk-assessment-guide
https://www.enisa.europa.eu/publications/cloud-computing-risk-assessment
https://blog.rsisecurity.com/how-to-implement-a-cloud-risk-assessment-framework/
Conclusion
Hope this blog explored a wide range of free questions surrounding the Certified Cloud Security Professional (CCSP) certification exam. And also you have gained a deeper understanding of the significance of this certification in today’s cloud-centric environment and the importance of ensuring the security of sensitive information stored in the cloud.
Through the Certified Cloud Security Professional (CCSP) practice tests, individuals can familiarize themselves with the types and difficulty levels of questions they may encounter in the actual CCSP certification exam. This will help them prepare effectively and gain confidence in their knowledge and skills.
By staying up to date with the latest developments in cloud security and obtaining the CCSP certification, professionals can position themselves as trusted experts in this rapidly expanding field. And also you should hone your practical skills by utilizing hands-on labs and sandboxes to clear the exam with a high success rate.
If you have any questions about this blog post, feel free to contact us today!
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