As organizations are constantly dependent on digital technology, cybersecurity has become a major concern. To enhance the cybersecurity level, it is better to take the Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate certification and it helps to validate the skills and knowledge that are required to start a career in cybersecurity operations.
In these CBROPS exam questions, we will cover topics such as security concepts, security monitoring, host-based analysis, network intrusion analysis, and security policies and procedures. These free 200 201 CBROPS practice exam questions will help to assess the knowledge before appearing for CyberOps Associate certification real exam.
Let’s get started!
All about Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate(CBROPS) certification
Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate certification helps to validate the basics required for associate-level job roles and it validates the knowledge and skills related to security concepts, security monitoring, host-based analysis, network intrusion analysis, and security policies and procedures.
Also Read: Preparation guide for Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate certification
From a standard provider of security solutions and certifications, the Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate certification and training program can pave a pathway to a career in cybersecurity operations.
What are the benefits of taking Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate(CBROPS) certification?
With the Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate certification, you can start your career in cybersecurity operations and some of the benefits achieved by taking this certification are:
- Learn the fundamentals of cybersecurity threat detection, prevention, and response.
- Enhance your resume with knowledge and certification in cybersecurity operations.
- Increasing your self-assurance by learning practical information
Top 20 Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate(CBROPS) Exam Questions
Here’s a list of practice questions for the Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate (CBROPS) exam that include information on the structure, level, and length of each question as well as the test pattern.
This set of 20 Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate practice questions will give you a solid idea of how the Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate(CBROPS) exam is structured, what kinds of questions will be asked, and how to pass the exam on your first try.
Domain : Security Concepts
Q1). Which of the following tools is used to provide real-time reporting and long-term analysis of security events in enterprise organizations?
A. SNMP
B. Wireshark
C. SIEM
D. TCPDump
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect as it allows analysts to request and receive information about the operation of network devices
Option B is incorrect This tool captures frames that are saved in a file that contains the frame information, interface information, packet length, and time stamps.
Option C is correct tool is used in enterprise organizations to provide real time reporting and long-term analysis of security events
Option D is incorrect utility provides numerous command-line options for capturing packets
References:
CyberOps Associate , Module 15 Network and Monitoring Tools
Domain : Host Based Analysis
Q2). Which of the following types of anti-malware software is used to recognize multiple characteristics of known malware files?
A. Signature Based
B. Heuristic Based
C. Behaviour Based
D. Software Based
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is correct because Signature-based approach recognizes various characteristics of known malware files.
Option B is incorrect because Heuristics-based recognizes general features shared by various types of malware.
Option C is incorrect because Behavior-based approach employs analysis of suspicious behavior.
Option D is correct as there is no such tool.
References:
CyberOps Associate , Module 22 End point Protection
Domain : Security Monitoring
Q3). A threat actor creates packets with a false source IP address to either hide the identity of the sender or pose as another legitimate user. Which of the following attacks best describes the above statement?
A. ICMP Attack
B. MiTM Attack
C. Session Hijacking
D. Address Spoofing Attack
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because Threat actors use Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo packets (pings) to discover subnets and hosts on a protected network, to generate DoS flood attacks, and to alter host routing tables.
Option B is incorrect because threat actors position themselves between a source and destination to transparently monitor, capture, and control the communication
Option C is incorrect because threat actors gain access to the physical network, and then use an MiTM attack to hijack a session.
Option D is correct because IP address spoofing attacks occur when a threat actor creates packets with false source IP address information to either hide the identity of the sender, or to pose as another legitimate user
References:
CyberOps Associate , Module 16 Attacking the Foundation
Domain : Security Monitoring
Q4). Which of the following type of data under network monitoring includes detailed protocol and payload information for all traffic on a network segment?
A. Statistical Data
B. Alert Data
C. Transaction Data
D. Full Packet Capture
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because statistical data is created through the analysis of other forms of network data. Conclusions can be made that describe or predict network behavior from these analysis.
Option B is incorrect because alert data consists of messages generated by intrusion prevention systems (IPSs) or intrusion detection systems (IDSs) in response to traffic that violates a rule or matches the signature of a known exploit
Option C is incorrect because transaction data consists of the messages that are exchanged during network sessions. These transactions can be viewed in packet capture transcripts. Device logs kept by servers also contain information about the transactions that occur between clients and servers
Option D is correct because full packet captures are the most detailed network data that is generally collected. Full packet captures contain the text of email messages, the HTML in webpages, and the files that enter or leave the network
References:
CyberOps Associate , Module 25 Network Security Data
Domain : Security Monitoring
Q5). Which of the following attack surfaces includes the exploitation of vulnerabilities in wired and wireless protocols used by IoT devices?
A. Human attack surface
B. Software attack surface
C. Network attack surface
D. Internet attack surface
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because the attack exploits weaknesses in user behavior. Such attacks include social engineering, malicious behavior by trusted insiders, and user error.
Option B is incorrect because the attack is delivered through the exploitation of vulnerabilities in web, cloud, or host-based software applications.
Option C is correct because the attack exploits vulnerabilities in networks. This can include conventional wired and wireless network protocols, as well as other wireless protocols used by smartphones or IoT devices.
Option D is incorrect because there is no such attack surface.
References:
CyberOps Associate , Module 22 Endpoint Protection
Domain : Security Monitoring
Q6). Which of the following firewalls provides intrusion prevention and techniques to address evolving security threats?
A. Next-gen Firewall
B. Stateful Firewall
C. Packet Filtering Firewall
D. Proxy Firewall
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is correct because Next-generation firewalls (NGFW) go beyond stateful firewalls by providing integrated intrusion prevention, application awareness, and control to see and block risky apps, upgrade paths to include future information feeds and techniques to address evolving security threats.
Option B is incorrect as it provide stateful packet filtering by using connection information maintained in a state table. Stateful filtering is a firewall architecture that is classified at the network layer and also analyzes traffic at OSI Layer 4 and Layer 5.
Option C is incorrect because Packet filtering firewalls are usually part of a router firewall, which permits or denies traffic based on Layer 3 and Layer 4 information.
Option D is incorrect because it filters information at Layers 3, 4, 5, and 7 of the OSI reference model
References:
CyberOps Associate, Module 12 Network Security Infrastructure
Domain : Security Monitoring
Q7). Which of the following is an example of social engineering? (Select TWO)
A. A computer displaying unauthorized pop-ups and adware
B. An anonymous programmer directing a DDoS attack on a data center
C. An unidentified person claiming to be a technician collecting user information from employees
D. Receiving an unexpected email from an unknown person with an uncharacteristic attachment from someone in the same company
Correct answer: C,D
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is an example of adware.
Option B is incorrect because it is an example of a network attack
Options C and D are correct because social engineering is an access attack that attempts to manipulate individuals into performing actions or divulging confidential information
References:
CyberOps Associate , Module 14 Common Threats and Attacks
Domain : Security Monitoring
Q8). Which of the following protocol is an IETF standard that defines the PKI digital certificate format?
A. X.500
B. X.509
C. LDAP
D. SSL/TLS
Correct answer: B
Explanation
Option A and C are incorrect because LDAP and X.500 are protocols that are used to query a directory service, such as Microsoft Active Directory, to verify a username and password.
Option B is correct because The IETF published the Internet X.509 Public Key Infrastructure Certificate Policy and Certification Practices Framework (RFC 2527). The X.509 version 3 (X.509 v3) standard defines the format of a digital certificate.
Option D is incorrect because SSL/TLS is used for authentication and encryption to secure data as it travels between the client and the server.
References:
CyberOps Associate , Module 21 Cryptography
Domain : Security Concepts
Q9). Which one of the following components of AAA is used to determine the resources a user can access and the operations a user can perform?
A. Auditing
B. Accounting
C. Authorization
D. Authentication
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because auditing is not AAA components.
Option B is incorrect because accounting is a process recording what the user does, including what is accessed, the amount of time the resource is accessed, and any changes.
Option C is correct because authorization determines which resources the user can access and which operations the user is allowed to perform.
Option D is incorrect because Authentication can be used to authenticate users for administrative access, or it can be used to authenticate users for remote network access.
References:
CyberOps Associate , Module 19 Access Control
Domain : Security Concepts
Q10). Which of the following access control models allows the user to access data as an owner of that data?
A. Mandatory access control
B. Time-based access control
C. Discretionary access control
D. Attribute-based access control
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because Mandatory Access Control (MAC) applies the strictest access control and is typically used in military or mission-critical applications.
Option B is incorrect as time-based access control allows access to network resources based on time and day.
Option C is correct because it is the least restrictive model and allows users to control access to their data as owners of that data.
Option D is incorrect because Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) allows access to users based on who they are rather than what they do.
ABAC allows access based on attributes of the object (resource) to be accessed, the subject (user) accessing the resource, and environmental factors regarding how the object is to be accessed, such as time of day.
References:
CyberOps Associate, Module 19 Access Control
Domain : Security Policies and Procedure
Q11). In which step is the weapon transmitted to the target through a website, removable USB media, an email attachment, or other means?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Delivery
C. Installation
D. Command and control
Correct answer: B
Explanation
Option A is incorrect because reconnaissance is when the threat actor performs research, gathers intelligence, and selects targets.
Option B is correct because this step, the weapon is transmitted to the target using a delivery vector. This may be through the use of a website, removable USB media, or an email attachment.
Option C is incorrect because this step is where the threat actor establishes a back door into the system to allow for continued access to the target.
Option D is incorrect because in this step, the goal is to establish command and control (CnC or C2) with the target system.
References:
CyberOps Associate, Module 28 Digital Forensics and Incident Analysis and Response
Domain : Network Intrusion Analysis
Q12). Which of the following classification is used for an alert that correctly identifies that an exploit has occurred?
A. False negative
B. True negative
C. True positive
D. False positive
Correct answer: C
Explanation
Option A is incorrect because an undetected incident has occurred.
Option B is incorrect because no security incident has occurred. The activity is benign.
Option C is correct because the alert has been verified to be an actual security incident.
Option D is incorrect because the alert does not indicate an actual security incident.
References :
CyberOps Associate , Module 26 Evaluating Alert
Domain : Network Intrusion Analysis
Q13). Which of the following types of analysis relies on different methods to establish the likelihood that a security event has occurred or will occur?
A. Deterministic
B. Log
C. Probabilistic
D. Statistical
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because for an exploit to be successful, all prior steps in the exploit must also be successful. The cybersecurity analyst knows the steps for a successful exploit.
Options B and D are incorrect because evaluating alerts and risk have two methods probabilistic and deterministic analysis, not log and statistical analysis.
Option C is correct because Statistical techniques are used to determine the probability that a successful exploit will occur based on the likelihood that each step in the exploit will succeed.
References:
CyberOps Associate , Module 26 Evaluating Alert
Domain : Network Intrusion Analysis
Q14). Which of the following type of events occurs when any changes are detected to network hosts and applications that are known to the network?
A. Intrusion
B. Host or Endpoint
C. NetFlow
D. Network Discovery
Correct answer: D
Explanation
Option A is incorrect because the system examines the packets that traverse the network for malicious activity that could affect the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of a host and its data
Option B is incorrect because when a host appears on the network, it can be detected by the system, and details of the device hardware, IP address, and the last known presence on the network can be logged.
Option C is incorrect because network discovery can use a number of mechanisms, one of which is to use exported NetFlow flow records to generate new events for hosts and servers.
Option D is correct because Network discovery events represent changes that have been detected in the monitored network.
References:
CyberOps Associate , Module 25 Network Security Data
Domain : Security Monitoring
Q15). Which of the following types of cryptography is used to protect passwords?
A. Asymmetric
B. Symmetric
C. Hash
D. Diffie-Hellman
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Options A, B, and D are incorrect as asymmetric and symmetric cryptography used for securing communication between devices. Diffie-Hellman is a digital encryption method that securely exchanges cryptographic keys between two parties over a public channel without their conversation being transmitted over the internet.
Option C is correct because this Hashing is used for protecting and securing the password.
References :
CyberOps Associate , Module 21 Cryptography
Domain : Security Monitoring
Q16). Which of the following encryption methods describes the concept of using a different key for encrypting and decrypting data?
A. Symmetric encryption
B. Block chiper
C. Asymmetric encryption
D. Deffie-Helman
Correct answer: C
Option A is incorrect because Symmetric algorithms use the same pre-shared key to encrypt and decrypt data. A pre-shared key also called a secret key, is known by the sender and receiver before any encrypted communications can take place.
Option B is incorrect because block ciphers transform a fixed-length block of plaintext into a common ciphertext block of 64 or 128 bits. Common block ciphers include DES with a 64-bit block size and AES with a 128-bit block size.
Option C is correct because Asymmetric algorithms, also called public-key algorithms, are designed so that the key that is used for encryption is different from the key that is used for decryption
Option D is incorrect because Diffie-Hellman (DH) is an asymmetric mathematical algorithm that allows two computers to generate an identical shared secret without having communicated before.
References :
CyberOps Associate , Module 21 Cryptography
Domain : Security Concepts
Q17). Which of the following frame field of Ethernet describes the higher-layer protocol encapsulated?
A. Data field
B. Type/Length
C. Destination address
D. Frame check sequence
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Option A is incorrect because this field (46 – 1500 bytes) contains the encapsulated data from a higher layer, which is a generic Layer 3 PDU, or more commonly, an IPv4 packet.
Option B is correct because Type / Length This 2-byte field identifies the upper layer protocol encapsulated in the Ethernet frame.
Option C is incorrect because this 6-byte field is the identifier for the intended recipient. As you will recall, this address is used by Layer 2 to assist devices in determining if a frame is addressed to them.
Option D is incorrect because the Frame Check Sequence (FCS) field (4 bytes) is used to detect errors in a frame. It uses a cyclic redundancy check (CRC).
References :
CyberOps Associate , Module 06 Ethernet and IP Protocol
Domain : Security Policies and Procedures
Q18). Which one of the following is not considered Personally Identifiable Information (PII) data?
A. Passport number
B. Birthdate
C. Birth Place
D. Bank account number
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Option C is correct because it is not an example of PII data.
Personally identifiable information (PII) is any information that can be used to positively identify an individual. Examples of PII include
- Name
- Social security number
- Birthdate
- Credit card numbers
- Bank account numbers
- Government issued ID
- Address information (street, email, phone numbers)
References :
CyberOps Associate , Module 01 The Danger
Domain : Security Policies and Procedures
Q19). Which of the following application layer protocol uses message types such as GET, PUT, and POST?
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. POP3
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Only HTTP uses messages such as GET, PUT, and POST
Option D is correct. HTTP is a request/response protocol that uses TCP port 80, although other ports can be used. When a client, typically a web browser, sends a request to a web server, it will use one of six methods that are specified by the HTTP protocol. There are GET, POST, PUT, DELETE, OPTIONS, and CONNECT.
References:
CyberOps Associate , Module 10 Network Services
Domain : Security Concepts
Q20). Which of the following frame field of Ethernet describes the higher-layer protocol encapsulated?
A. Data field
B. Type/Length
C. Destination address
D. Frame check sequence
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Option A is incorrect because field (46 – 1500 bytes) contains the encapsulated data from a higher layer, which is a generic Layer 3 PDU, or more commonly, an IPv4 packet.
Option B is correct because 2-byte field identifies the upper layer protocol encapsulated in the Ethernet frame.
Option C is incorrect because 6-byte field is the identifier for the intended recipient. As you will recall, this address is used by Layer 2 to assist devices in determining if a frame is addressed to them.
Option D is incorrect because Frame Check Sequence (FCS) field (4 bytes) is used to detect errors in a frame. It uses a cyclic redundancy check (CRC).
References :
CyberOps Associate , Module 06 Ethernet and IP Protocol
Summary
Hope this blog post has provided you with a comprehensive list of free questions to help you prepare for the Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate certification exam. By practicing these questions, you can test your knowledge and familiarize yourself with the exam format, ensuring that you’re well-prepared for success.
Additionally, leverage other study resources such as official Cisco documentation, study guides, 200 201 CBROPS practice exams, and online forums to enhance your preparation. Engaging in hands-on lab exercises and real-world scenarios will also help reinforce your understanding and practical skills.
Finally, approach the exam day with confidence and a calm mindset. Trust in your preparation and time management skills to tackle each question effectively.
Keep studying and practicing to increase your chances of success on the CyberOps Associate exam.
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